(ii) the directors agree to disclose the note. (4 marks)

正确答案：

The Company Directors Disqualification Act (CDDA) 1986 was introduced to control individuals who persistently abused the various privileges that accompany incorporation, most particularly the privilege of limited liability. The Act applies to more than just directors and the court may make an order preventing any person (without leave of the court) from being:
(i) a director of a company;
(ii) a liquidator or administrator of a company;
(iii) a receiver or manager of a company’s property; or
(iv) in any way, whether directly or indirectly, concerned with or taking part in the promotion, formation or management of a company.
The CDDA 1986 identifies three distinct categories of conduct, which may, and in some circumstances must, lead the court to disqualify certain persons from being involved in the management of companies.
(a) General misconduct in connection with companies
This first category involves the following:
(i) A conviction for an indictable offence in connection with the promotion, formation, management or liquidation of a company or with the receivership or management of a company’s property (s.2 of the CDDA 1986). The maximum period for disqualification under s.2 is five years where the order is made by a court of summary jurisdiction, and 15 years in any other case.

(ii) Persistent breaches of companies legislation in relation to provisions which require any return, account or other document to be filed with, or notice of any matter to be given to, the registrar (s.3 of the CDDA 1986). Section 3 provides that a person is conclusively proved to be persistently in default where it is shown that, in the five years ending with the date of the application, he has been adjudged guilty of three or more defaults (s.3(2) of the CDDA 1986). This is without prejudice to proof of persistent default in any other manner. The maximum period of disqualification under this section is five years.
(iii) Fraud in connection with winding up (s.4 of the CDDA 1986). A court may make a disqualification order if, in the course of the winding up of a company, it appears that a person:
(1) has been guilty of an offence for which he is liable under s.993 of the CA 2006, that is, that he has knowingly been a party to the carrying on of the business of the company either with the intention of defrauding the company’s creditors or any other person or for any other fraudulent purpose; or
(2) has otherwise been guilty, while an officer or liquidator of the company or receiver or manager of the property of the company, of any fraud in relation to the company or of any breach of his duty as such officer, liquidator, receiver or manager (s.4(1)(b) of the CDDA 1986).
The maximum period of disqualification under this category is 15 years.(b) Disqualification for unfitness
The second category covers:
(i) disqualification of directors of companies which have become insolvent, who are found by the court to be unfit to be directors (s.6 of the CDDA 1986). Under s. 6, the minimum period of disqualification is two years, up to a maximum of 15 years;
(ii) disqualification after investigation of a company under Pt XIV of the CA 1985 (it should be noted that this part of the previous Act still sets out the procedures for company investigations) (s.8 of the CDDA 1986). Once again, the maximum period of disqualification is 15 years.
Schedule 1 to the CDDA 1986 sets out certain particulars to which the court is to have regard in deciding whether a person’s conduct as a director makes them unfit to be concerned in the management of a company. In addition, the courts have given indications as to what sort of behaviour will render a person liable to be considered unfit to act as a company director. Thus, in Re Lo-Line Electric Motors Ltd (1988), it was stated that:
‘Ordinary commercial misjudgment is in itself not sufficient to justify disqualification. In the normal case, the conduct complained of must display a lack of commercial probity, although . . . in an extreme case of gross negligence or total incompetence, disqualification could be appropriate.’

(c) Other cases for disqualification
This third category relates to:
(i) participation in fraudulent or wrongful trading under s.213 of the Insolvency Act (IA)1986 (s.10 of the CDDA 1986);
(ii) undischarged bankrupts acting as directors (s.11 of the CDDA 1986); and
(iii) failure to pay under a county court administration order (s.12 of the CDDA 1986).
For the purposes of most of the CDDA 1986, the court has discretion to make a disqualification order. Where, however, a person has been found to be an unfit director of an insolvent company, the court has a duty to make a disqualification order (s.6 of the CDDA 1986). Anyone who acts in contravention of a disqualification order is liable:
(i) to imprisonment for up to two years and/or a fine, on conviction on indictment; or
(ii) to imprisonment for up to six months and/or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum, on conviction summarily (s.13 of the CDDA 1986).

正确答案：
(ii) A company has to apply IAS12 to the temporary differences between the carrying amount of the assets and liabilities in
its opening IFRS balance sheet (1 November 2003) and their tax bases (IFRS1 ‘First time adoption of IFRS’). The
deferred tax provision will be calculated using tax rates that have been enacted or substantially enacted by the balance
sheet date. The carrying values of the assets and liabilities at the opening balance sheet date will be determined by
reference to IFRS1 and will use the applicable IFRS in the first IFRS financial statements. Any adjustments required to
the deferred tax balance will be recognised directly in retained earnings.
Subsequent balance sheets (at 31 October 2004 and 31 October 2005) will be drawn up using the IFRS used in the
financial statements to 31 October 2005. The deferred tax provision will be adjusted as at 31 October 2004 and thenas at 31 October 2005 to reflect the temporary differences arising at those dates.

正确答案：
(b) Directors’ retirement benefits
The directors’ retirement benefits are unfunded plans which may fall under IAS19 ‘Employee Benefits’.
Sirus should review its contractual or constructive obligation to make retirement benefit payments to its former directors at the
time when they leave the firm. The payments may create a financial liability under IAS32, or may give rise to a liability of
uncertain timing and amount which may fall within the scope of IAS37 ‘Provisions, contingent liabilities and contingent
assets’. Certain former directors are paid a fixed annuity for a fixed term which is payable annually, and on death, the present
value of future payments are paid to the director’s estate. An annuity meets the definition of a financial liability under IAS32,
if there is a contractual obligation to deliver cash or a financial asset. The latter form. of annuity falls within the scope of
IAS32/39. The present value of the annuity payments should be determined. The liability is recognised because the directors
have a contractual right to the annuity and the firm has no discretion in terms of withholding the payment. As the rights to
the annuities are earned over the period of the service of the directors, then the costs should have been recognised also over
the service period.
Where an annuity has a life contingent element and, therefore, embodies a mortality risk, it falls outside the scope of IAS39
because the annuity will meet the definition of an insurance contract which is scoped out of IAS39, along with employers’
rights and obligations under IAS19. Such annuities will, therefore, fall within the scope of IAS37 if a constructive obligation
exists. Sirus should assess the probability of the future cash outflow of the present obligation. Because there are a number of
similar obligations, IAS37 requires that the class of obligations as a whole should be considered (similar to a warranty
provision). A provision should be made for the best estimate of the costs of the annuity and this would include any liability
for post retirement payments to directors earned to date. The liability should be built up over the service period rather than
just when the director leaves. In practice the liability will be calculated on an actuarial basis consistent with the principles in
IAS19. The liability should be recalculated on an annual basis, as for any provision, to take account of changes in directors
and other factors. The liability will be discounted where the effect is material.

正确答案：
(c) Non-executive directors
Roles of NEDs
Non-executive directors have four principal roles.
The strategy role recognises that NEDs are full members of the board and thus have the right and responsibility to contribute
to the strategic success of the organisation for the benefit of shareholders. The enterprise must have a clear strategic direction
and NEDs should be able to bring considerable experience from their lives and business experience to bear on ensuring that
chosen strategies are sound. In this role they may challenge any aspect of strategy they see fit and offer advice or input to
help to develop successful strategy.
In the scrutinising or performance role, NEDs are required to hold executive colleagues to account for decisions taken and
company performance. In this respect they are required to represent the shareholders’ interests against the possibility that
agency issues arise to reduce shareholder value.
The risk role involves NEDs ensuring the company has an adequate system of internal controls and systems of risk
management in place. This is often informed by prescribed codes (such as Turnbull in the UK) but some industries, such as
chemicals, have other systems in place, some of which fall under ISO standards. In this role, NEDs should satisfy themselves
on the integrity of financial information and that financial controls and systems of risk management are robust and defensible.
Finally, the ‘people’ role involves NEDs overseeing a range of responsibilities with regard to the management of the executive
members of the board. This typically involves issues on appointments and remuneration, but might also involve contractual
or disciplinary issues and succession planning.
Tutorial note: these four roles are as described in the UK Higgs Report and are also contained in the Combined Code 2003.
Tensions in NED roles in the case
This refers to a potential tension in the loyalties of the NEDs. Although the NED is accountable, through the chairman to the
shareholders and thus must always act in the economic best interests of the shareholders, he or she is also a part of the board
of the company and they may, in some situations, advise discretion. Withholding information might be judged correct because
of strategic considerations or longer-term shareholder interests. In most situations, NEDs will argue for greater transparency,
less concealment and more clarity of how and why a given action will be in the interests of shareholders.
The case of mallerite overestimation places the WM NEDs in a position of some tension. Any instinct to conceal the full extent
of the overestimate of the reserve for the possible protection of the company’s short-term value must be balanced against the
duty to serve longer-term strategic interests and the public interest. Whilst concealment would protect the company’s
reputation and share price in the short term, it would be a duty of the NEDs to point out that WM should observe transparency
as far as possible in its dealing with the shareholders and other capital market participants.

正确答案：
(ii) Stakeholder claims
Four external stakeholders in the case and their claims are as follows.
The client, i.e. the government of the East Asian country. This stakeholder wants the project completed to budget and
on time. It may also be concerned to minimise negative publicity in respect of the construction of the dam and the
possible negative environmental consequences.
Stop-the-dam, the vocal and well organised pressure group. This stakeholder wants the project stopped completely,
seemingly and slightly paradoxically, for environmental and social footprint reasons.
First Nation, the indigenous people group currently resident on the land behind the dam that would be flooded after its
construction. This stakeholder also wants the project stopped so they can continue to live on and farm the land.
The banks (identified as a single group). These seem happy to lend to the project and will want it to proceed so they
make a return on their loans commensurate with the risk of the loan. They do not want to be publicly identified as being
associated with the Giant Dam Project.
Shareholders. The shareholders have the right to have their investment in the company managed in such a way as to
maximise the value of their shareholding. The shareholders seek projects providing positive NPVs within the normal
constraints of sound risk management.
Tutorial note: only four stakeholders need to be identified. Marks will be given for up to four relevant stakeholders
only.

正确答案：
(b) One approach that the directors of Moffat Ltd could adopt would be to ignore the qualitative benefits that may arise on the
basis that there is too much subjectivity involved in their assessment. The problem that this causes is that the investment will
probably look unattractive since all costs will be included in the evaluation whereas significant benefits and savings will have
been ignored. Hence such an approach is lacking in substance and is not recommended.
An alternative approach would involve attempting to attribute values to each of the identified benefits that are qualitative in
nature. Such an approach will necessitate the use of management estimates in order to derive the cash flows to be
incorporated in a cost benefit analysis. The problems inherent in this approach include gaining consensus among interested
parties regarding the footing of the assumptions from which estimated cash flows have been derived. Furthermore, if the
proposed investment does take place then it may well be impossible to prove that the claimed benefits of the new system
have actually been realised.
Perhaps the preferred approach is to acknowledge the existence of qualitative benefits and attempt to assess them in a
reasonable manner acceptable to all parties including the company’s bank. The financial evaluation would then not only
incorporate ‘hard’ facts relating to costs and benefits that are quantitative in nature, but also would include details of
qualitative benefits which management consider exist but have not attempted to assess in financial terms. Such benefits might
include, for example, the average time saved by location managers in analysing information during each operating period.
Alternatively the management of Moffat Ltd could attempt to express qualitative benefits in specific terms linked to a hierarchy
of organisational requirements. For example, qualitative benefits could be categorised as being:
(1) Essential to the business
(2) Very useful attributes
(3) Desirable, but not essential
(4) Possible, if funding is available
(5) Doubtful and difficult to justify.

正确答案：
(iii) ‘If we implement a reward scheme then it is bound to be beneficial for BGL’.
The statement of the manufacturing director is not necessarily correct. Indeed there is much evidence to support the
proposition that the existence of performance-related reward schemes can encourage dysfunctional behaviour. This often
manifests itself in the form. of ‘budgetary slack’ which is incorporated into budgets in anticipation of subsequent cuts by
higher levels of management or to make subsequent performance look better.

正确答案：

(iii) The marketing director is certainly correct in recognising that success is dependent on levels of service quality provided
by HFG to its clients. However, whilst the number of complaints is an important performance measure, it needs to be
used with caution. The nature of a complaint is, very often, far more indicative of the absence, or a lack, of service
quality. For example, the fact that 50 clients complained about having to wait for a longer time than they expected to
access gymnasium equipment is insignificant when compared to an accident arising from failure to maintain properly a
piece of gymnasium equipment. Moreover, the marketing director ought to be aware that the absolute number of
complaints may be misleading as much depends on the number of clients serviced during any given period. Thus, in
comparing the number of complaints received by the three centres then a relative measure of complaints received per
1,000 client days would be far more useful than the absolute number of complaints received.
The marketing director should also be advised that the number of complaints can give a misleading picture of the quality
of service provision since individuals have different levels of willingness to complain in similar situations.
The marketing director seems to accept the current level of complaints but is unwilling to accept any increase above this
level. This is not indicative of a quality-oriented organisation which would seek to reduce the number of complaints over
time via a programme of ‘continuous improvement’.
From the foregoing comments one can conclude that it would be myopic to focus on the number of client complaints
as being the only performance measure necessary to measure the quality of service provision. Other performance
measures which may indicate the level of service quality provided to clients by HFG are as follows:
– Staff responsiveness assumes critical significance in service industries. Hence the time taken to resolve client
queries by health centre staff is an important indicator of the level of service quality provided to clients.
– Staff appearance may be viewed as reflecting the image of the centres.
– The comfort of bedrooms and public rooms including facilities such as air-conditioning, tea/coffee-making and cold
drinks facilities, and office facilities such as e-mail, facsimile and photocopying.
– The availability of services such as the time taken to gain an appointment with a dietician or fitness consultant.
– The cleanliness of all areas within the centres will enhance the reputation of HFG. Conversely, unclean areas will
potentially deter clients from making repeat visits and/or recommendations to friends, colleagues etc.
– The presence of safety measures and the frequency of inspections made regarding gymnasium equipment within
the centres and compliance with legislation are of paramount importance in businesses like that of HFG.
– The achievement of target reductions in weight that have been agreed between centre consultants and clients.
(Other relevant measures would be acceptable.)

正确答案：
(ii) Equipment used in the manufacture of Bachas Blue
Tutorial note: In the context of GVF, the principal issue to be addressed is whether or not the impairment loss previously
recognised should be reversed (by considering the determination of value in use). Marks will also be awarded for
consideration of depreciation, additions etc made specific to this equipment.
■ Agree cost less accumulated depreciation and impairment losses at the beginning of the year to prior year working
papers (and/or last year’s published financial statements).
■ Recalculate the current year depreciation charge based on the carrying amount (as reduced by the impairment
loss).
■ Calculate the carrying amount of the equipment as at 30 September 2005 without deduction of the impairment
loss.
Tutorial note: The equipment cannot be written back up to above this amount (IAS 36 ‘Impairment of Assets’).
■ Agree management’s schedule of future cash flows estimated to be attributable to the equipment for a period of up
to five years (unless a longer period can be justified) to approved budgets and forecasts.
■ Recalculate:
– on a sample basis, the make up of the cash flows included in the forecast;
– GVF’s weighted average cost of capital.
■ Review production records and sales orders for the year, as compared with the prior period, to confirm a ‘steady
increase’.
■ Compare sales volume at 30 September 2005 with the pre-‘scare’ level to assess how much of the previously
recognised impairment loss it would be prudent to write back (if any).
■ Scrutinize sales orders in the post balance sheet event period. Sales of such produce can be very volatile and
another ‘incident’ could have sales plummeting again – in which case the impairment loss should not be reversed.

正确答案：
(ii) Deema Co
The claim is an event after the balance sheet date. If the accident occurred prior to the year end of 30 September 2007,
the claim gives additional evidence of a year end condition, and thus meets the definition of an adjusting post balance
sheet event. In this case the matter appears to have been properly disclosed in the notes to the financial statements per
IAS 10 Events After the Balance Sheet Date and IAS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets. A
provision would only be necessary if the claim was probable to succeed and there is sufficient appropriate evidence that
this is not the case. There is therefore no disagreement, and no limitation on scope.
Therefore the senior is correct to propose an unqualified opinion.
However, it is not necessary for the audit report to contain an emphasis of matter paragraph.
ISA 701 Modifications to the Independent Auditor’s Report states that an emphasis of matter paragraph should be used
to highlight a matter where there is significant uncertainty.
Uncertainties are normally only regarded as significant if they involve a level of concern about the going concern status
of the company or would have an unusually great effect on the financial statements. This is not the case here as there
is enough cash to pay the damages in the unlikely event that the claim goes against Deema Co. This appears to be a
one-off situation with a low risk of the estimate being subject to change and thus there is no significant uncertainty.

正确答案：
(ii) Audit procedures on the consolidation schedule of the Rosie Group:
– Agree correct extraction of individual company figures by reference to individual company audited financial
statements.
– Cast and cross cast all consolidation schedules.
– Recalculate all consolidation adjustments, including goodwill, elimination of pre acquisition reserves, cancellation
of intercompany balances, fair value adjustments and accounting policy adjustments.
– By reference to prior year audited consolidated accounts, agree accounting policies have been consistently applied.
– Agree brought down figures to prior year audited consolidated accounts and audit working papers (e.g. goodwill
figures for Timber Co and Ben Co, consolidated reserves).
– Agree that any post acquisition profits consolidated for Dylan Co arose since the date of acquisition by reference to
date of control passing per the purchase agreement.
– Reconcile opening and closing group reserves and agree reconciling items to group financial statements.

正确答案：
(ii) ‘No frills’ low-cost budget airlines are usually associated with the following characteristics. Each of these characteristics
is considered in the context of Oceania National Airlines (ONA).
– Operational economies of scale
Increased flight frequency brings operational economies and is attractive to both business and leisure travellers. In
the international sector where ONA is currently experiencing competition from established ‘no frills’ low-cost budget
airlines ONA has, on average, one flight per day to each city. It would have to greatly extend its flight network, flight
frequency and the size of its aircraft fleet if it planned to become a ‘no frills’ carrier in this sector. This fleet
expansion appears counter to the culture of an organisation that has expanded very gradually since its formation.
Table 1 shows only three aircraft added to the fleet in the period 2004–2006. It is likely that the fleet size would
have to double for ONA to become a serious ‘no frills’ operator in the international sector. In the regional sector, the
flight density, an average of three flights per day, is more characteristic of a ‘no frills’ airline. However, ONA would
have to address the relatively low utilisation of its aircraft (see Tables 1 and 2) and the cost of maintenance
associated with a relatively old fleet of aircraft.
– Reduced costs through direct sales
On-line booking is primarily aimed at eliminating commission sales (usually made through travel agents). ‘No frills’
low-cost budget airlines typically achieve over 80% of their sales on-line. The comparative figure for ONA (see
Table 2) is 40% for regional sales and 60% for international sales, compared with an average of 84% for their
competitors. Clearly a major change in selling channels would have to take place for ONA to become a ‘no frills’
low-cost budget airline. It is difficult to know whether this is possible. The low percentage of regional on-line sales
seems to suggest that the citizens of Oceania may be more comfortable buying through third parties such as travel
agents.
– Reduced customer service
‘No frills’ low-cost budget airlines usually do not offer customer services such as free meals, free drinks and the
allocation of passengers to specific seats. ONA prides itself on its in-flight customer service and this was one of the
major factors that led to its accolade as Regional Airline of the Year. To move to a ‘no frills’ strategy, ONA would
have to abandon a long held tradition of excellent customer service. This would require a major cultural change
within the organisation. It would also probably lead to disbanding the award winning (Golden Bowl) catering
department and the redundancies of catering staff could prove difficult to implement in a heavily unionised
organisation.
Johnson, Scholes and Whittington have suggested that if an organisation is to ‘achieve competitive advantage through
a low price strategy then it has two basic choices. The first is to try and identify a market segment which is unattractive
(or inaccessible) to competitors and in this way avoid competitive pressures to erode price.’ It is not possible for ONA to
pursue this policy in the international sector because of significant competition from established continental ‘no frills’
low-cost budget airlines. It may be a candidate strategy for the regional sector, but the emergence of small ‘no frills’ lowcost
budget airlines in these countries threaten this. Many of these airlines enter the market with very low overheads
and use the ‘no frills’ approach as a strategy to gain market share before progressing to alternative strategies.
Secondly, a ‘no frills’ strategy depends for its success on margin. Johnson, Scholes and Whittington suggest that ‘in the
long run, a low price strategy cannot be pursued without a low-cost base’. Evidence from the scenario suggests that ONA
does not have a low cost base. It continues to maintain overheads (such as a catering department) that its competitors
have either disbanded or outsourced. More fundamentally (from Table 2), its flight crew enjoy above average wages and
the whole company is heavily unionised. The scenario acknowledges that the company pays above industry salaries and
offers excellent benefits such as a generous non-contributory pension. Aircraft utilisation and aircraft age also suggest a
relatively high cost base. The aircraft are older than their competitors and presumably incur greater maintenance costs.
ONA’s utilisation of its aircraft is also lower than its competitors. It seems highly unlikely that ONA can achieve the
changes required in culture, cost base and operations required for it to become a ‘no frills’ low-cost budget airline. Other
factors serve to reinforce this. For example:
– Many ‘no frills’ low-cost budget airlines fly into airports that offer cheaper taking off and landing fees. Many of these
airports are relatively remote from the cities they serve. This may be acceptable to leisure travellers, but not to
business travellers – ONA’s primary market in the regional sector.
– Most ‘no frills’ low-cost budget airlines have a standardised fleet leading to commonality and familiarity in
maintenance. Although ONA has a relatively small fleet it is split between three aircraft types. This is due to
historical reasons. The Boeing 737s and Airbus A320s appear to be very similar aircraft. However, the Boeings
were inherited from OceaniaAir and the Airbuses from Transport Oceania.
In conclusion, the CEO’s decision to reject a ‘no frills’ strategy for ONA appears to be justifiable. It would require major
changes in structure, cost and culture that would be difficult to justify given ONA’s current position. Revolution is the
term used by Baligan and Hope to describe a major rapid strategic change. It is associated with a sudden transformation
required to react to extreme pressures on the organisation. Such an approach is often required when the company is
facing a crisis and needs to quickly change direction. There is no evidence to support the need for a radical
transformation. This is why the CEO brands the change to a ‘no frills’ low-cost budget airline as ‘unnecessary’. The
financial situation (Table 3) is still relatively healthy and there is no evidence of corporate predators. It can be argued
that a more incremental approach to change would be beneficial, building on the strengths of the organisation and the
competencies of its employees. Moving ONA to a ‘no frills’ model would require seismic changes in cost and culture. If
ONA really wanted to move into this sector then they would be better advised to start afresh with a separate brand andairline and to concentrate on the regional sector where it has a head start over many of its competitors.

正确答案：

正确答案：
(c) Companies can give the impression that they are generating more cash than they are, by manipulating cash flow. The way
in which acquisitions, loans and, as in this case, the sale of assets, is shown in the statement of cash flows, can change the
nature of operating cash flow and hence the impression given by the financial statements. The classification of cash flows
can give useful information to users and operating cash flow is a key figure. The role of ethics in the training and professional
lives of accountants is extremely important. Decision-makers expect the financial statements to be true and fair and fairly
represent the underlying transactions.
There is a fine line between deliberate misrepresentation and acceptable presentation of information. Pressures on
management can result in the misrepresentation of information. Financial statements must comply with International
Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS), the Framework and local legislation. Transparency, and full and accurate disclosure is
important if the financial statements are not to be misleading. Accountants must possess a high degree of professional
integrity and the profession’s reputation depends upon it. Ethics describe a set of moral principles taken as a reference point.
These principles are outside the technical and practical application of accounting and require judgement in their application.
Professional accountancy bodies set out ethical guidelines within which their members operate covering standards of
behaviour, and acceptable practice. These regulations are supported by a number of codes, for example, on corporate
governance which assist accountants in making ethical decisions. The accountant in Warrburt has a responsibility not to mask
the true nature of the statement of cash flow. Showing the sale of assets as an operating cash flow would be misleading if
the nature of the transaction was masked. Users of financial statements would not expect its inclusion in this heading and
could be misled. The potential misrepresentation is unacceptable. The accountant should try and persuade the directors to
follow acceptable accounting principles and comply with accounting standards. There are implications for the truth and
fairness of the financial statements and the accountant should consider his position if the directors insist on the adjustments
by pointing the inaccuracies out to the auditors.

正确答案：
(ii) Accountability to equity investors
Voluntary disclosures are an effective way of redressing the information asymmetry that exists between management and
investors. In adding to mandatory content, voluntary disclosures give a fuller picture of the state of the company.
More information helps investors decide whether the company matches their risk, strategic and ethical criteria, and
expectations.
Makes the annual report more forward looking (predictive) whereas the majority of the numerical content is backward
facing on what has been.
Helps transparency in communicating more fully thereby better meeting the agency accountability to investors,
particularly shareholders.
There is a considerable amount of qualitative information that cannot be conveyed using statutory numbers (such as
strategy, ethical content, social reporting, etc).
Voluntary disclosure gives a more rounded and more complete view of the company, its activities, strategies, purposes
and values.
Voluntary disclosure enables the company to address specific shareholder concerns as they arise (such as responding
to negative publicity).
[Tutorial note: other valid points will attract marks]

正确答案：
(ii) Tensions in roles
On one hand, Anne needs to cultivate and manage her relationship with her manager (Zachary) who seems convinced
that Van Buren, and Frank in particular, are incapable of bad practice. He shows evidence of poor judgment and
compromised independence. Anne must decide how to deal with Zachary’s poor judgment.
On the other hand, Anne has a duty to both the public interest and the shareholders of Van Buren to ensure that the
accounts do contain a ‘true and fair view’. Under a materiality test, she may ultimately decide that the payment in
question need not hold up the audit signoff but the poor client explanation (from Frank) is also a matter of concern to
Anne as a professional accountant.

正确答案：
(ii) Four factors that could be considered are as follows:
(i) The quality of the service provided by NSC as evidenced by, for example, the comfort of the ferries, on-board
facilities, friendliness and responsiveness of staff.
(ii) The health and safety track record of NSC – passenger safety is a ‘must’ in such operations.
(iii) The reliability, timeliness and dependability of NSC as a service provider.
(iv) The potential loss of image due to redundancies within Wonderland plc.

正确答案：
(b) Critical success factors are as follows:
Product quality
The fact that the production staff have no previous experience in a food production environment is likely to prove problematic.
It is vital that a comprehensive training programme is put in place at the earliest opportunity. HSC need to reach and maintain
the highest level of product quality as soon as possible.
Supply quality
The quality of delivery into SFG supermarkets assumes critical significance. Time literally will be of the essence since 90%
of all sandwiches are sold in SFG’s supermarkets before 2 pm each day. Hence supply chain management must be extremely
robust as there is very little scope for error.
Technical quality
Compliance with existing regulations regarding food production including all relevant factory health and safety requirements
is vital in order to establish and maintain the reputation of HSC as a supplier of quality products. The ability to store products
at the correct temperature is critical because sandwiches are produced for human consumption and in extreme circumstance
could cause fatalities.
External credibility
Accreditation by relevant trade associations/regulators will be essential if nationwide acceptance of HSC as a major producer
of sandwiches is to be established.
New product development
Whilst HSC have developed a range of healthy eating sandwiches it must be recognised that consumer tastes change and
that in the face of competition there will always be a need for a continuous focus on new product development.
Margin
Whilst HSC need to recognise all other critical success factors they should always be mindful that the need to obtain the
desired levels of gross and net margin remain of the utmost importance.
Notes: (i) Only five critical success factors were required.
(ii) Alternative relevant discussion and examples would be acceptable.

正确答案：

 

正确答案：
(ii) Procedures to verify the number of serious accidents during 2007 could include the following:
Tutorial note: procedures should focus on the completeness of the disclosure as it is in the interest of Sci-Tech Co to
understate the number of serious accidents.
– Review the accident log book and count the total number of accidents during the year
– Discuss the definition of ‘serious accident’ with the directors and clarify exactly what criteria need to be met to
satisfy the definition
– For serious accidents identified:
? review HR records to determine the amount of time taken off work
? review payroll records to determine the financial amount of sick pay awarded to the employee
? review correspondence with the employee regarding the accident.
Tutorial note: the above will help to clarify that the accident was indeed serious.
– Review board minutes where the increase in the number of serious accidents has been discussed
– Review correspondence with Sci-Tech Co’s legal advisors to ascertain any legal claims made against the company
due to accidents at work
– Enquire as to whether any health and safety visits have been conducted during the year by regulatory bodies, and
review any documentation or correspondence issued to Sci-Tech Co after such visits.
Tutorial note: it is highly likely that in a regulated industry such as pharmaceutical research, any serious accident
would trigger a health and safety inspection from the appropriate regulatory body.
– Discuss the level of accidents with representatives of Sci-Tech Co’s employees to reach an understanding as to
whether accidents sometimes go unreported in the accident log book.

正确答案：
(c) (i) Audit report implications
Audit procedures have shown that there is a significant level of doubt over Dexter Co’s going concern status. IAS 1
requires that disclosure is made in the financial statements regarding material uncertainties which may cast significant
doubt on the ability of the entity to continue as a going concern. If the directors refuse to disclose the note to the financial
statements, there is a clear breach of financial reporting standards.
In this case the significant uncertainty is caused by not knowing the extent of the future availability of finance needed
to fund operating activities. If the note describing this uncertainty is not provided, the financial statements are not fairly
presented.
The audit report should contain a qualified or an adverse opinion due to the disagreement. The auditors need to make
a decision as to the significance of the non-disclosure. If it is decided that without the note the financial statements are
not fairly presented, and could be considered misleading, an adverse opinion should be expressed. Alternatively, it could
be decided that the lack of the note is material, but not pervasive to the financial statements; then a qualified ‘except
for’ opinion should be expressed.
ISA 570 Going Concern and ISA 701 Modifications to the Independent Auditor’s Report provide guidance on the
presentation of the audit report in the case of a modification. The audit report should include a paragraph which contains
specific reference to the fact that there is a material uncertainty that may cast significant doubt about the entity’s ability
to continue as a going concern. The paragraph should include a clear description of the uncertainties and would
normally be presented immediately before the opinion paragraph.

正确答案：
(ii) Further audit procedures:
Request from Peter Sheffield a written representation detailing:
– the exact nature of his control over Jarvis Co, i.e. if he is a shareholder then state his percentage shareholding, if
he is a member of senior management then state his exact position within the entity,
– a comment on whether in his opinion the balance is recoverable,
– a specific date by which the amount should be expected to be repaid, and
– a confirmation that there are no further balances outstanding from Jarvis Co, or any further transactions between
Jarvis Co and Pulp Co.
Tutorial note: Reference to the Exposure Draft ISA 550 Related Parties (Revised and Redrafted) requirement for both
general and specific management representations will be awarded credit.
Review the terms of any written confirmation of the amount, such as a signed agreement or invoice, checking whether
any interest is due to Pulp Co. The terms should be reviewed for details of any security offered, and the nature of the
consideration to be provided in settlement.
From discussion with Peter Sheffield, develop an understanding of the business purpose of the transaction, particularly
to understand whether the balance is a trade receivable or an investment.
Review the board minutes for evidence of any discussion of the transaction and the recoverability of the balance
outstanding.
Obtain the most recent audited financial statements of Jarvis Co and:
– ascertain whether Peter Sheffield is disclosed as the ultimate controlling party or disclosed as a member of key
management personnel,
– scrutinise the disclosure notes to find any disclosure of the transaction, where it should be described as a related
party liability, and
– perform. a liquidity analysis to establish whether the amount can be repaid from liquid assets.